No Pleasure in Sacrifices?

Question:

Hebrews 10:6 says that in burned offerings and sin offerings, the Lord has taken no pleasure. However, in the Old Testament, we see many instances of where offerings did please the Lord - Noah's' offering for example. Wouldn't you say that the author is wrong in his statement that the Lord has taken no pleasure in such offerings. By the Law's standard He should not have taken pleasure in these offerings. However, the fact is that God did not look upon these offerings through the eyes of the Law, but rather with mercy. So the Lord DID in fact - historical fact - take pleasure in these offerings. What does the author mean?

Answer:

The quote in Heb 10:6 is from Hosea 6:6, which is a whole context dealing with Jewish hypocrisy. Noah was not a hypocrite, therefore God accepted his sacrifice.

Robert Sungenis
Catholic Apologetics International
June 7, 2002

Have All Sacrifices Ceased?

Question:

In Heb 10:2 the author says that the Old Testament sacrifices would have ceased, had they actually worked to perfection - "otherwise, would they not have ceased to be offered"? However, he says that since they did not completely/perfectly do the job, they needed to be repeated day in, day out. We can infer or deduce therefore that the author would say the same thing about the New Testament Offering. Since it was perfect, it should, buy the same token, cease to be offered. It just seems logical. Is there any way around this scriptural cage for Catholics?

Answer:

You need to distinguish two kinds of offering: an offering by death, as opposed to aliving offering. The offering by death had to be repeated in the OT, because the Law was only a "shadow" of the real "form." In the NT, the sacrifice of death was offered once, and there is no more need for a death sacrifice. The sacrifice that is offered now is a living oblation. And because it is living, it can be offered continually to the Father.

Robert Sungenis
Catholic Apologetics International
June 7, 2002

Heb. 9:23 - What is Purified by Sacrifices?

Question:

In Heb 9:23-24, when the writer says that the heavenly things themselves need to be purified "with better sacrifices than these," do you really think that the writer meant people? This is what I read in Not by Bread Alone. Since when are people called "things?" Earlier on in the chapter (v. 19, 21) the author lists "things" which, in the Old Testament, needed to be purified. These things included vessels, the tent, the book and also people. So the only time when people are allowed to be called "things" is when listed with many other things. But to assume that the author would refer to people as "things" (even when not listed with other real things) does seem like a stretch, don't you think? Where in the Bible do you ever find people being referred to as "things", or even "heavenly?"

Answer:

The Greek does not say "things." It says "the heavenlies." Thus, the verse would literally read: "It was necessary for the representations of the things in the heavens to be purified with these, but the heavenlies themselves with better sacrifices than these."

Robert Sungenis
Catholic Apologetics International
June 7, 2002